Unfortunately my link above does not link to the post with comments. Several comments worth thinking about have already been made. So check it out: http://leiterreports.typepad.com/blog/2007/09/is-natural-lang.html#comments
Is this blog entry asserting: (1) because a natural language has distinct words x and y, this gives evidence that x and y are metaphysically different things. -A very bold statementIf so, what motivates this? Beyond Hannah Arendt's say so of course. It's not clear to me how this methodology differs (in an acceptable way with respect to confirmation) from that of the methodology of intuitions.
Note: if the motivations for this are in the readings which I have not yet been assigned and am not yet aware of, just say so.
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